That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose. (Genesis 6:2) There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown. (Genesis 6:4) Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan came also among them. (Job 1:6) Again there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan came also among them to present himself before the LORD. (Job 2:1)
John also used the term: “But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name…” (John 1:12) Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God: therefore the world knoweth us not, because it knew him not. Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God: therefore the world knoweth us not, because it knew him not. (1 John 3:1) and “Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is.” (1 John 3:2)
Paul uses the term in an identical manner: For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God. (Romans 8:14) For the earnest expectation of the creature waiteth for the manifestation of the sons of God. (Romans 8:19)
So as Paul and John illustrate, one who is righteous becomes a “son of God.”
The term “only begotten Son” is used in relation Jesus only by the writer of John: For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ. No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. (John 1:17-18. Also John 3:16, 3:18, and 1 John 4:9)
The writer of John is believed to be a Greek convert and his lack of knowledge of Judaism and the Torah is as appalling as his hatred of Jews. (He uses “Jews” as a slur over 60 times in the Gospel of John alone.) First, the Law was given directly by God to Moses. Second, Moses saw God. Whomever wrote John is not quoting Jesus, he is giving us his own opinion. Third, Jesus is not the only “only begotten Son” of God: I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee. (Psalms 2:7) Psalms is believed to be written by David.
When the writer of John does quote Jesus, “But now ye seek to kill me, a man that hath told you the truth, which I have heard of God: this did not Abraham.” (John 8:40) And according to Paul’s follower Luke, “Because he hath appointed a day, in the which he will judge the world in righteousness by that man whom he hath ordained; whereof he hath given assurance unto all men, in that he hath raised him from the dead.” (Acts 17:31)
But John 8:40 is contradicted by John 5:18, “Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God.” According to the New American Bible most scholars believe John had been altered and rewritten. That is the opinion of the writer of John, Jesus did not say it. The same story is in the other Gospels without that claim. Does that mean anyone that becomes a “son of God” becomes an equal to God?
Jesus was a man, a human ordained by God to show us the way. So like David (Psalms 132:10, etc.), he was an “anointed” servant of God. Jesus and David were not the only “anointed,” “Thus saith the LORD to his anointed, to Cyrus, whose right hand I have holden..” (Isaiah 45:1) One doesn’t even have to be a Jew to be “anointed” and anyone can be a “son” (or daughter) of the Lord as long we act in righteous manner and obey God’s Laws.
What does Paul say about God’s Law? “For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them.” (Galatians 3:10) But Paul goes on, “Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree…” (Galatians 3:13)
Does he mean Jesus? Jesus is cursed? Nowhere in the Bible does it say the Law was a curse, except by Paul. What does Jesus say about the Law? “Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfill.” (Matthew 5:17) “But this people who knoweth not the law are cursed.” (John 7:49) And what does God say? “Cursed be he that confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them. And all the people shall say, Amen.” (Deut 27:26)
Paul contradicts both God and Jesus at every turn. The Gentile writer of John was certainly not the Apostle John, referring to the “Jews” and “their Law” in many places. It’s a second hand story mixed with a lot of Greek Platonism and anti-Semitic rhetoric. Nearly all Christian dogma is based on Paul and a misreading of John. Jesus, the “anointed” servant of God, is reduced to mere shadow. An object of worship (idolatry), not one to be followed. Jesus is no Platonic Logos.
But is Jesus God? “I and my Father are one.” said Jesus. (John 10:30) But that must stand beside John 17:22-23, “And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one. I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one; and that the world may know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me.”
Paul had no interest in the earthly life of Jesus and cared little for those that did. He spoke only of a spiritual Christ. Even in his own words, he claims to be sent directly by God to be an apostle. (1 Corinthians 1:1, Paul called to be an apostle of Jesus Christ through the will of God…) Thus Paul by his own claims, had a direct line to God, something the original apostles never had. (There is the Trinity)
By tradition, Mark brought the Gospel to Egypt while Peter brought the Gospel to Rome. But the connection back to Paul is clear. Mark and in particular Peter being one of the original twelve, directly disobeyed Jesus. But what did Jesus have to say? “These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not…” (Matthew 10:5) This was missing from Luke and Mark, Paul’s followers. In Acts Luke claims Peter had a special revelation that overruled earlier teachings.
What does Paul say about preaching to Gentiles? “And I went up by revelation, and communicated unto them that gospel which I preach among the Gentiles…” (Galatians 2:2) So who did Paul get revelations from?
Jesus himself never mentioned Adam, the Garden, etc. All of this is based on Paul alone, and the entire concept of no death before the Fall of Adam is also Paul, “Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam’s transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.” (Romans 5:14) “For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.” (1 Corinthians 15:22)
Paul’s claims we are all being punished for Adam’s sin, even if we never sinned ourselves. This is so unjust from God who stands for justice. But what does God has to say? But if a man be just, and do that which is lawful and right… he shall surely live, saith the Lord GOD. If he beget a son that is a robber, a shedder of blood, and that doeth the like to any one of these things…he (the son) shall surely die; his blood shall be upon him…” (Ezekiel 18:5, etc.) As God explained in Ezekiel, only the sinner will be punished for their own sins and not the sins of others. Nor will others be punished for sins they did not commit.
Paul also misquotes the Torah in relation to Abraham, “For if Abraham were justified by works, he had whereof to glory; but not before God. For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and was counted unto him for righteousness. Now when a man works, his wages are not credited to him as a gift, but as an obligation. However, to the man who does not work but trusts God who justifies the wicked, his faith is credited as righteousness.” (Romans 4:2-5) The Paulist book Hebrews made a similar claim: “By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had received the promises offered up his only begotten son…” (Hebrews 11:17)
But is that what God had to say? “[B]ecause thou [Abraham] hast done this thing, and hast not withheld thy son, thine only son: That in blessing I will bless thee, and in multiplying I will multiply thy seed as the stars of the heaven, and as the sand which is upon the sea shore; and thy seed shall possess the gate of his enemies; And in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed; because thou hast obeyed my voice.” Genesis 22:16-18.
James agrees with God, “Thou believest that there is one God; thou doest well: the devils also believe, and tremble. But wilt thou know, O vain man, that faith without works is dead? Was not Abraham justified by works when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar? Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by his works was made perfect?” (James 2:19-22)
In no manner had Abraham “offered up” his son Isaac. He was ordered by God to sacrifice Isaac (as a test) and because Abraham obeyed God’s commands, he was blessed. Paul rewrote this vital passage to reflect his own theology, not that of God.
It’s clear that without Paul, there would no Christianity outside a Jewish sect following the Torah. The church in order to make it look like Jesus was the founder of Pauline Christianity, rearranged the order in which the New Testament books were written. (We should note there was no New Testament as such until Marcion in the 2nd century.)